I read a story tonight saying President Trump has called for more immigration judges in the past, and that his call this past week for doing away with them marks a reversal of course.
Truth told, does whether he favors having more judges or getting rid of them have anything to do with how they are ruling? Does he draw his decision to get rid of them from how he now thinks they are ruling against him. If enough decisions are saying deport them, he likes the judges. But, if the rulings start coming back saying the immigrants should be granted asylum, then he wants the judges axed.
I do not doubt that.
And, what if the judges can see this? What if they can see the President wants them if they rule the way he wants them to, but he doesn't want them if they don't? Job security comes in compliance.
Isn't that an undue influence? Could it even stretch into the realm of obstruction of justice? Maybe not fitting into the legal definition of what can be prosecuted as obstruction of justice, but falling into the umbrella of what does wrongly influence decisions.
I do just ask the question. I just say it is right to wonder.
(Note: Edited for clarity 4/13/19 and republished with further revision and addition that same 4/13/19.)
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